Math, asked by singhkundan20102000, 1 year ago

Proved that sin+cos=1

Answers

Answered by kanimozhi15111
0

Answer:

According to the Pythagorean theorem,

x2 + y2 = r2.  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .(1)

Therefore, on dividing both sides by r2,  

x2

r2   +   y2

r2   =   r2

r2   =  1.

That is, according to the definitions,

cos2θ  +  sin2θ  =  1.  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .  .(2)

Apart from the order of the terms, this is the first Pythagorean identity, a).

To derive b), divide line (1) by x2; to derive c), divide by y2.

Or, we can derive both b) and c) from a) by dividing it first by cos2θ and then by sin2θ.  On dividing line 2) by cos2θ, we have

That is,

1 + tan2θ  =  sec2θ.

And if we divide a) by sin2θ, we have

That is,

1 + cot2θ  =  csc2θ.





singhkundan20102000: ya to glat h
kanimozhi15111: what i dont understand
Answered by 1811akash
1

Answer:


Step-by-step explanation:



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