Math, asked by himmatsin66, 4 months ago

proves that disjunction distributes over conjunction?​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
0

Step-by-step explanation:

I have proven using theorems that implication is left distributive over conjunction:

x→(y∧z)≡(x→y)∧(x→z)x→(y∧z)≡(x→y)∧(x→z)

Proof:

x→(y∧z)≡¬x∨(y∧z)≡(¬x∨y)∧(¬x∨z)≡(x→y)∧(x→z)

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Answered by LIVED
0

Answer:

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