Math, asked by master55538, 22 hours ago

right answer needed!!1

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Answered by pkharkwal20

0

Step-by-step explanation:

1 is the answer of this question

Answered by mouryathapriyanshu

0

Answer:

0. If f (x. ). =) = 0 , then the value of by az ax

(i1) -1

(iv) None of these

(ii1) 0

(1) 1

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