Math, asked by Anonymous, 10 months ago

❤️ᴛʜᴇʀᴇ ᴀʀᴇ ɪɴғɪɴɪᴛᴇ ʙʟᴀᴄᴋ ᴀɴᴅ ᴡʜɪᴛᴇ ᴅᴏᴛs ᴏɴ ᴀ ᴘʟᴀɴᴇ. ᴘʀᴏᴠᴇ ᴛʜᴀᴛ ᴛʜᴇ ᴅɪsᴛᴀɴᴄᴇ ʙᴇᴛᴡᴇᴇɴ ᴏɴᴇ ʙʟᴀᴄᴋ ᴅᴏᴛ ᴀɴᴅ ᴏɴᴇ ᴡʜɪᴛᴇ ᴅᴏᴛ ɪs ᴏɴᴇ ᴜɴɪᴛ.

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Answers

Answered by XxxXXJAYXXxxX
1

Answer:

SINCE IN THE QUESTION, THE PROVING IS ' ONE UNIT ', WE TAKE THE UNIT TO BE AN INFINITESIMAL (THAT IS THE NUMBER IS VERY VERY CLOSE TO ZERO BUT ISNT ZERO).

SO SINCE THE DISTANCE IS ALMOST ZERO, THE UNIT DISTANCE BETWEEN THEM IS ALSO ONE UNIT.

OR

SINCE ANY MATHEMATICAL PLANE IS INFINITE, INFINITE DOTS OVER INFINITE AREA IS 1 AND SO UNIT DISTANCE IS ALSO ONE.

THIS IS AN IMO QUESTION..

4 MARKER.

CHECK PERSPECTIVE AND APPROACH

FOLLOW ME FOR MORE CORRECT ANSWER. INBOX ME. MARK AS BRAINLIEST

Answered by Anonymous
2

Answer:

The statement is in general false: for example, if the black dots are all and only on the locus x=0, while the white ones are all and only on the locus x=2, then the assertion is false (we are using the Euclidean distance).

Probably there are some more hypothesis in the background OR the aim of the question is just to analyze the way the candidate faces a given mathematical problem, reaching conclusions which can be in contrast with the thesis of any given question.

hope you understand mate....!!!!

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