Math, asked by Love2study, 1 year ago

show that (x^2+1)^2 - x^2 = 0 has no real roots.

Answers

Answered by jyothsnagourraj
155
(x^2+1)^2-x^2=0
(x^2+1)^2=x^2
rooting on both sides
we get
 x^2+1=x       x^2+1=-x
x^2-x+1=0      x^2+x+1=0
det of equations is less than zero
hence they have imaginary roots


jyothsnagourraj: is it helpful
Love2study: yes, thanks
jyothsnagourraj: your welcome
jyothsnagourraj: hey can ask you one question
Love2study: what?
jyothsnagourraj: underroot 3 root 45
jyothsnagourraj: how can it be represented
jyothsnagourraj: do you know
Love2study: i think it will be √3√45.
Answered by ColinJacobus
98

Answer: Showed.

Step-by-step explanation: We are given to show that the following equation has no real roots.

(x^2+1)^2-x^2=0.

We know that, for a quadratic equation ax^2+bx+c=0(a\neq 0), the discriminant 'D' is defined as

D=b^2-4ac.

The classification of the roots of the equation, based on the discriminant 'D' is as follows:

(i) The roots are real and equal id D = 0.

(ii) The roots are real and unequal if D > 0.

(iii) The roots are unreal if D < 0.

Let, x² = y, then our given equation becomes

(y+1)^2-y=0\\\\\Rightarrow y^2+y+1=0.

Here, a = 1, b = 1  and  c = 1.

Therefore, the discriminant is given by

D=b^2-4ac=1^2-4\times 1\times 1=1-4=-3&lt;0.

Thus, the given equation has no real roots.

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