Simple common sense question of maths.... please answer... i am confused
IF a = b
and c = d
Then a=d => 1 = b/a ----------(i)
and c=d => 1 = d/c ----------(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii), we get:-
b/a = d/c
Is it correct??? Please answer with proof or example....!
THANKS IN ADVANCE....! WAITING FOR YOUR REPLY
Jenita:
sorry i don't understand your question
Answers
Answered by
1
First of all you wrote a=d by mistake, it should be a=b
Yes, your answer is correct.
If a = b Then b/a can also be written as b/b = 1 .............. (i)
Similarly, c = d . So d/c can also be written as d/d = 1 ................. (ii)
Thus from (i) and (ii) we get
b/a = 1 = d/c
= b/a = d/c
Hope that helps !!
Yes, your answer is correct.
If a = b Then b/a can also be written as b/b = 1 .............. (i)
Similarly, c = d . So d/c can also be written as d/d = 1 ................. (ii)
Thus from (i) and (ii) we get
b/a = 1 = d/c
= b/a = d/c
Hope that helps !!
Answered by
0
If a=b
cosider a=bx1⇒b/a=1..........................(1)
If c=d
consider c=dx1⇒d/c=1......................(2)
Both equation have same right hand side then there RHS must be same
b/a=d/c
cosider a=bx1⇒b/a=1..........................(1)
If c=d
consider c=dx1⇒d/c=1......................(2)
Both equation have same right hand side then there RHS must be same
b/a=d/c
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