Physics, asked by israrali24, 10 months ago

Since, f=ma, or f=mg,

the equation can be written as
f/m=g

than why isnt accelaration due to gravity inversely proportional to the mass of object?

p.s Clear my doubt and brainliest is waiting for you​

Answers

Answered by mithul3905
1

Answer:

u are taking this wrongly,u should use f=gm1m2/r^2 which is correct

Answered by vaibhavshukla97
0

Explanation:

the acceleration produced by a given force is inversely proportional to the mass of body such

it happens when force remain same

this is conclusion of Newton's second laws of motion

because of momentum

the acceleration produced in a body of mass is directly proportional to applied for ce

because of constant of mass

hope this helps you

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