Physics, asked by cutePagal, 28 days ago

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Answers

Answered by adityajadon500
1

Answer:

Answer of this question is (a) 1 ohm (b) 0.71 ohm

Answered by pavaniviolet
0

1 ohn

Explanation:

  1. r = 1+2= 3 ohms
  2. ( bcoz 1 ohm 2 ohm resistors are in series)
  3. and now this 3 ohm is parallel to 1.5 ohm resistors
  4. so req= 1.5×3/1.5+3
  5. that equal to 1 ohm which is effective resistance
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