English, asked by jyothibejagam, 11 months ago

Suppose the direction cosines of
two lines are given by
al + bm + cn = 0 and
fmn + gln + hlm = 0 where
5 ,g, h,a,b,c are arbitrary constants
and l, m, n are direction cosines of
the lines. On the both of the above
information answer the following​

Answers

Answered by Swarup1998
2

Co-ordinates (3D)

Complete question.

Show that if the straight lines whose direction cosines are given by al+bm+cn=0, fmn+gnl+hlm=0 be parallel, then one of the relations \sqrt{af}\pm\sqrt{bg}\pm\sqrt{ch}=0 is true.

Prove further that if the lines be at right angles, then

\quad\quad\frac{f}{a}+\frac{g}{b}+\frac{h}{c}=0.

Proof.

Given relations are

\quad\quad al+bm+cn=0

\quad\quad fmn+gnl+hlm=0

Eliminating l from the relations above, we get

\quad fmn+gn\left(-\frac{bm+cn}{a}\right)+h\left(-\frac{bm+cn}{a}\right)m=0

\Rightarrow fmn-\frac{bgmn+cgn^{2}}{a}-\frac{bhm^{2}+chmn}{a}=0

\Rightarrow (af-bg-ch)mn-cgn^{2}-bhm^{2}=0

\Rightarrow bhm^{2}-(af-bg-ch)mn+cgn^{2}=0

\Rightarrow bh\left(\frac{m}{n}\right)^{2}-(af-bg-ch)\frac{m}{n}+cg=0\quad...(1)

If (l_{1},\:m_{1},\:n_{1}) and (l_{2},\:m_{2},\:n_{2}) be the direction cosines of the given lines, then we can take \frac{m_{1}}{n_{1}} and \frac{m_{2}}{n_{2}} being the roots of equation (1).

If the lines be parallel to each other, their direction cosines will be the same and the roots of the equation (1) has to be equal.

For equal roots, we write

\quad D=0

\Rightarrow \{-(af-bg-ch)\}^{2}-4bcgh=0

\Rightarrow (af-bg-ch)^{2}=4bcgh

\Rightarrow af-bg-ch=\pm 2\sqrt{bcgh}

\Rightarrow af=bg\pm 2\sqrt{bcgh}+ch

\Rightarrow af=(\sqrt{bg}\pm \sqrt{ch})^{2}

\Rightarrow \pm\sqrt{af}=\pm\sqrt{bg}+\pm\sqrt{ch}

\Rightarrow \boxed{\color{red}{\sqrt{af}\pm\sqrt{bg}\pm\sqrt{ch}=0}}

Equation (1) also gives

\quad \frac{m_{1}m_{2}}{n_{1}n_{2}}=\frac{cg}{bh}

\Rightarrow \frac{m_{1}m_{2}}{\frac{g}{b}}=\frac{n_{1}n_{2}}{\frac{h}{c}}\quad.....(2)

Similarly eliminating n from the given relations, we get

\quad \frac{l_{1}l_{2}}{\frac{f}{a}}=\frac{n_{1}n_{2}}{\frac{h}{c}}\quad.....(3)

Combining (2) and (3), we have

\quad \frac{l_{1}l_{2}}{\frac{f}{a}}=\frac{m_{1}m_{2}}{\frac{g}{b}}=\frac{n_{1}n_{2}}{\frac{h}{c}}=k\:(say)

If the given two lines be at right angles, then

\quad l_{1}l_{2}+m_{1}m_{2}+n_{1}n_{2}=0

\Rightarrow \frac{kf}{a}+\frac{kg}{b}+\frac{kh}{c}=0

\Rightarrow \boxed{\color{red}{\frac{f}{a}+\frac{g}{b}+\frac{h}{c}=0}}

This completes the proof.

Read more on Brainly.in

The plane passing through the origin and containing the lines whose direction cosines are proportional to (1,\:-2,\:2) and (2,\:3,\:1) passes through the point.

- https://brainly.in/question/16891949

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