Math, asked by 98Ashutoshsingh, 4 months ago

That
show
(m²-1)
is
a factor of (m21-1) and (m21-1)​

Answers

Answered by subhsamavartj
0

Step-by-step explanation:

Let f(m)=m  

21

−1 and g(m)=m  

22

−1.

The remainders when f(m) and g(m) are divided by m−1 are f(1) and g(1) respectively.

Now f(1)=0=g(1).

Now by factor theorem, as the remainders are zero, so the f(m) and g(m) are perfectly divisible by m−1.

So m−1 is a factor of the given expressions.  

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