Math, asked by ezhilkd, 2 months ago

The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.1,754 is the same as loss incurred after selling the article for Rs.1,492. What is the cost price of the article?​

Answers

Answered by anumathsfiles
1

Answer:

Rs.1623

Step-by-step explanation:

Attachments:
Answered by Ҡαηнα
4

Answer :

  • 1623

Given :

  • SP of an article when profit earned = Rs 1754

  • SP of an article when Loss incurred = Rs 1492

To Find :

  • The cost price of the article.

Let's Start :

SP of profit - CP = SP of loss - CP

Let the CP be x

Solution :

 \rm \implies1754 - x = x - 1492\\ \\  \rm \implies x + x = 1492 - 1754 \\ \\  \rm \implies 2 \: x = 3246 \\ \\   \rm \implies x \:  = \frac{3246}{2} \\ \\   \rm \implies x \:  = \frac{{ \cancel{3246}}{}^{ \:  \:  \:  \:  \tiny1623 }}{ \cancel{ \:   \: \: 2  \:  \: \: }} \:  \:  \:     \\  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:   \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:  \:   {}^{1}  \\ \\  \implies \bf \: x = 1623

Therefore, Cost price ( x ) of the article = 1623

Verification :

  • Is 1623, the Cost Price of the article or not ?

___________________________

Here, We can look into the question where it was written that, selling the article at 1754 the seller earned profit.

We know, that Profit = SP > CP

So, if the SP ( 1754 ) of article given in question is greater than our answer ( 1623 ) that means there is Profit.

SP ( 1754 ) > CP ( 1623 ), it means that our answer is right, because the question is saying about profit after selling the article in 1754 and after we get CP there is also profit.

Hence proved, P = P ( right )

___________________________

Here, We can look into the question where it was written that, selling the article at 1492 the seller incurred loss.

We know, that Loss = CP > SP

So, if the SP ( 1492 ) of article given in the question is less than our answer ( 1623 ) that means there is loss.

CP ( 1623 ) > SP ( 1492 ), it means that our answer is right, because the question is saying about loss after selling the article in 1492 and after we get CP there is also loss.

Hence proved, L = L ( right )

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