Economy, asked by preetika15, 11 months ago

the railways are making losses on passenger traffic, they should lower their fares.
The suggested remedy would only work, if the demand for rail travel had a price elasticity of
(A) Zero
(B) Greater than zero but less than one
(C)
One
(D)
Greater than one​

Answers

Answered by mindfulmaisel
1

The ‘suggested remedy’ would only work if the ‘demand for rail travel’ had a ‘price elasticity’ of Greater than Zero and less than one.

Option: B

Explanation:

  • If the railways decide to lower their fares their ‘demand for rail’ travel will increase.  
  • If the ‘income elasticity’ of demand is ‘greater than zero’, it means that demand for the good rises as income rises.  
  • If the ‘elasticity of demand’ is less than zero, then the demand for rail travel falls as ‘income rises’.

Learn more about elasticity

When is there expansion or shift in elasticity of demand?

https://brainly.in/question/11269682

What is the difference between price elasticity of demand and elasticity of substitution? Explain the various measures of price ela sticity of demand.​

https://brainly.in/question/12435193

Answered by charancharu774
0

greater than 1 bcz when price decreases qd rises more than change in price only when ep>1 , same like , here in this question incase railways lower the prices then there will be qd increases more means passengers will increase than change in price

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