Math, asked by sb8971177, 3 months ago

the value of (1)^i is
a) -1
b) i
c) e^-π
d) e^-2π

Answers

Answered by saurav7793

answer is 1

Because 1 having power of anything is equal to 1

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the value of (1)^i isa) -1 b) ic) e^-πd) e^-2π​

Answers

the value of (1)^i is
a) -1
b) i
c) e^-π
d) e^-2π