Math, asked by princess2001, 2 months ago

the value of (–42)÷(–1) is

Answers

Answered by amitkumar3093

0

Answer:

what is the cud define please tell

Answered by chaitanyaganesh1630

1

Answer:

ANYTHING DIVIDED BY 1 IS NUMBER ITSELF. SO, (-42)÷(-1) Is absolutely 42.

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

Math, 1 month ago

Which can be inferred from the activity? (a)The contents in the bowl before heating can be classified as a mixture because they appear different. (b)The contents in the bowl before heating can be classified as a mixture because they could be separated. (c)The contents in the bowl after heating can be classified as a mixture because they were not affected by the magnet. (d)The contents in the bowl...

English, 1 month ago

chapter 1 english raintree book why did all three men remember the church ?

Hindi, 1 month ago

difference between wild animals and domestic animals ...

Math, 2 months ago

3 X 7 X 11+11 is odd number, or prime number, or composite number...

Computer Science, 2 months ago

Phishers can’t fake the yellow lock found at the top of some secure web pages.Phishers can’t fake the yellow lock found at the top of some secure web pages. true or false...

Math, 9 months ago

15,60,17,58,23,52,53,40.find wrong term. pls give ans with explaination...

Hindi, 9 months ago

पर्यावाची सब्द 1 वर्ष 2 हड़िया 3 जरूरी...

Math, 9 months ago

From a grouup of 2 boys and 2 girls two children are selected eandom. What is the sample space represenring the event. Find the probability that one boy and one girl is selected...