Math, asked by nayeema0138, 1 month ago

using bodmas rule
1 1/6÷37/42+20-2 1/6​

Answers

Answered by shreekrishna35pdv8u8
1

Step-by-step explanation:

1 \frac{1}{6}  \div  \frac{37}{42}  + 20 - 2 \frac{1}{6}  \\  =  \frac{7}{6}  \times  \frac{42}{37}  + 20 -  \frac{13}{6}  \\  =  \frac{49}{37}   + 20 -  \frac{13}{6}  \\  =  \frac{294 + 4440 - 481}{222}  \\  =  \frac{4253}{222}

Answered by dyssyfusf
0

Step-by-step explanation:

11/6×42/37+20-21/6

=11×7/37+20-21/6

=77/37+20×37/1×37-21/6

=77/37+740/37 -21/6

=817/37-21/6

=817×6/222-21×37/222

=4902/222-777/222

=4125/222

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