History, asked by raazisaeed, 2 days ago

were the invasions by the afghans and persians the main reason for the decline of the Mughal Empire explain your answer. 14 mark question, requires a lot to write so don't give short answers. And don't spam or I'll report u​

Answers

Answered by liasangma
11

Answer:

No. It was actually the other way around. The decline of the Mughal Empire was the main reason for the Persian and Afghan invasions in the 18th century.

The Mughal Empire had been in decline long before the invasion of Nader Shah. Early signs of decline had appeared even during the reign of Shah Jahan. But the decline was truly visible in the later part of Aurangzeb’s reign. While the Mughal Empire was now larger and wealthier than ever before, it was also riddled with problems. The death of Bahadur Shah I in 1712 began the period of the Mughal collapse. This large and powerful empire would collapse in a matter of decades.

The Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah I. The collapse of the Mughal Empire began following his short reign and death.

Two very important factors that led to the collapse of the Mughal central authority during this time were:

Infighting between the Mughals - The wars of succession following the death of Bahadur Shah greatly weakened the Mughal dynasty and strengthened the nobility. It also allowed the Mughal rivals to grow powerful. There were five Mughal emperors in the seven years following the death of Bahadur Shah.

Incompetence of Muhammad Shah Rangeela - The wars of succession ended when Muhammad Shah took the throne. He would rule for about thirty years. Muhammad Shah’s incompetence resulted in the irreversible decline of the Mughals. There was no real chance of recovery by the end of his reign.

The greatest evidence of the fact that the Mughal Empire was in decline even before the invasion of Nader Shah is the Maratha Empire. The Maratha Empire was pushing back the Mughals and taking over its territory. And the Mughal military and administration was able to do nothing to stop the Maratha expansion.

More evidence of the collapse comes from the breakaway of Mughal provinces to form almost independent kingdoms that barely recognized the Mughal authority. Even before Nader Shah’s invasion, Bengal and Hyderabad had broken away from the empire. Both were now ruled by Nawabs.

Even before the invasion of Nader Shah, the Maratha Peshwa Baji Rao’s campaigns were making it clear that the Mughals authority was collapsing.

Nader Shah spotted the weakness within the Mughal Empire and decided to capitalize on it. He invaded the empire with relative ease and crushed the combined Mughal coalition forces in the Battle of Karnal in February 1739. This was followed by the plunder and massacre at Delhi, the capital of the Mughal Empire. This event was the final straw for the Mughal authority. It made is clear to everyone that the Mughal Empire was in a state of collapse.

New rising powers took full advantage of this collapse and tried to fill the power vacuum. The western regions of the empire were captured by the Durrani Empire. The Southern and Central heartland came under Maratha influence. From the east, the British (EIC) were expanding their influence.

Nader Shah’s invasion of the Mughal Empire was the last straw for the old empire. It pushed it past the point of recovery.

Answered by Mstfaltrkmy
2

Answer:

The Mughals are not native to South asia so They are the persians and also Afghanis are an Eastern persian group

Explanation:

The central and south kingdoms are the native ones Urdu is turkic in origin For example although there are certainly Persianized,Turkified and the most influencial Arabized South asians

The turkified and persianize still retain some or many South asian Features whereas the arabized one Have long forgotten their past and now live on the arabian peninsula

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