Math, asked by johnaarongonzales, 11 hours ago

What is the inverse of the function F= {(-2, -3), (-2, -1), (-4, -1), (5, 0)}?

Answers

Answered by pavanadevassy
0

Answer:

The function F has no inverse.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the function is

F=\{(-2,-3),(-2,-1),(-4,-1),(5,0)\}

This means that function maps -2 to -3, -2 to -1, -4 to -1 and 5 to 0.

When we find the inverse we take each number in the range which are {-3,-1,0} and find its preimage under this function F. But the number -1 is an image of two numbers -2 and -4. So the function is not one-one and hence F has no inverse.

An inverse exist if and only if the function is both one-one and onto.

Answered by pulakmath007
0

SOLUTION

TO DETERMINE

The inverse of the function

F = {(-2, -3), (-2, -1), (-4, -1), (5, 0)}

CONCEPT TO BE IMPLEMENTED

INJECTIVE FUNCTION :

 \sf{A  \: function  \: f  :  A  \to B  \: is  \: said \:  to  \: be \:  injective \: if}

 \sf{For  \:  \: x_1 \ne x_2  \:   \: we \:  have \:  \:  f(x_1) \ne f(x_2)}

SURJECTIVE FUNCTION :

 \sf{A  \: function  \: f  :  A  \to B  \: is  \: said \:  to  \: be \:  surjective}

if for every element y in the co-domain B there exists a pre-image x in domain set A such that y = f(x)

BIJECTIVE FUNCTION :

 \sf{A  \: function  \: f  :  A  \to B  \: is  \: said \:  to  \: be \:  bijective}

if f is both injective and surjective

EVALUATION

Here the given function is

F = {(-2, -3), (-2, -1), (-4, -1), (5, 0)}

Now a function F is said to have inverse if F is bijective

We see that F maps - 2 of its domain to two different elements - 3 & - 1

So F is not injective

Thus F is not bijective

Hence the inverse of the function F does not exist

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