Math, asked by sameer481rakshit, 1 year ago

what must be multiplied to 4x^4 - 2x^3 - 6x^2 + x - 5 so that the result is exactly divisible by 2 x^2 + x - 1

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
1

Answer:

Hey Mate..

Step-by-step explanation:

Lets divide (4x4 - 2x³ - 6x³ + x - 5) by (2x² + x – 1) as shown.


2x² + X - 1 ) 4x∧4 - 2x³ - 6x² + x - 5 ( 2x² - 2x - 1

                    4x∧4 - 2x³- 2x²

           ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬

                                - 4x³ - 4x² + x

                                 - 4x³ - 4x² +2x

                                  +       -       -

                        ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬

                                          - 2x² - x - 5

                                           -2x² -  x - 1

                                    ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬

                                                        -6

                                       ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬

Hence (−6) should be subtracted from (4x4 − 2x3 − 6x2 + x − 5) so that the resulting polynomial is exactly divisible by (2x2 + x – 1).

Thank You...


sameer481rakshit: I wrote multiply not subtract
sameer481rakshit: I know how to answer subtract one question
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