History, asked by shreshthi2164, 11 months ago

Which of the following explains why the Munich Agreement is an example of appeasement?

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Answered by nishant123401
0

Answer:

Munich Agreement

EUROPE [1938]

WRITTEN BY: 

The Editors of Encyclopaedia Britannica

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Alternative Title: Munich Pact

Munich Agreement, (September 30, 1938), settlement reached by Germany, Great Britain, France, and Italy that permitted German annexation of the Sudetenland, in western Czechoslovakia. After his success in absorbing Austria into Germany proper in March 1938, Adolf Hitler looked covetously at Czechoslovakia, where about three million people in the Sudeten area were of German origin. It became known in May 1938 that Hitler and his generals were drawing up a plan for the occupation of Czechoslovakia. The Czechoslovaks were relying on military assistance from France, with which they had an alliance. The Soviet Union also had a treaty with Czechoslovakia, and it indicated willingness to cooperate with France and Great Britain if they decided to come to Czechoslovakia’s defense, but the Soviet Union and its potential services were ignored throughout the crisis.

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