History, asked by starshraddha478, 1 year ago

Why are the people diified with british rule in the 1870 s and 1880s?

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Answered by sushantkumar5339
0
From my family records, I judge there were two main reasons.

First, the British government, as the Raj, had shown itself to be less efficient and more racist than had been the East India Company. The Company had pursued wealth and engagement for its Indian contractors and employees. Taxes had not been levied: instead, the Companyhad ploughed back some of its profits into infrastructure and public/commercial services such as banking, publishing and so on. Also, the Company had not stolen land or industry from Indian owners and entrepreneurs. It worked as a contract buyer.

Under the Raj, taxes were raised on Indian businesses and the new government structure compulsorily purchased land and buildings from Indian families and communities.

Second, at that time, Canada, New Zealand and Australia had been raised within the Empire to the status of Dominions. The upper classes in India, and the educated castes, believed that India should attain the same status. In the main, the Princely States and aristocracy were content with British control of the army, the law, finances and the education system that benefitted themselves. But to be refused Dominion status was taken as a serious snub. Therefore, the upper classes began to join with lower castes and independent activists for the first time.

This troublesome situation was ameliorated over the next 20 years, say until 1914, with various items of legislation that gave Indians more control over their own laws, finances and representative government. So much so, that in 1912, King George V asked the British government to find ways of replacing the Empire with a more modern structure; especiallyfor India. It took many years but resulted in creation of the Commonwealth and independence for the sub-continent

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