Social Sciences, asked by rapturousrainbow164, 1 year ago

Why did Britain have a trade surplus with India???( 3mark)

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Answered by zahraarefaezzy

because in India there were many people who were taking there selling material was selling in there high prices and at that time the Indians were very frindly with britians

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Answered by lambahimanshu29

Britain have a trade surplus with india because when that came to India for the purpose of trade the notice that the rulers of India always fight with each other for there kingdom and the Mughal empire was also in dicline so the take benifet of this and start trading in India.They sold the machine made goods in India which were cheaper and very good in quality.By this the demand of hand made goods decreases.In this way they get benifet from the Indians

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