History, asked by Username12102006, 3 months ago

Why did the National Assembly of France not pass any law to abolish slave trade? In which year did the Convention legislate to free all slaves in the French overseas possessions?

Answers

Answered by SHALVIAGARWAL
2

Answer:

(i) In order to overcome the shortage of labour on the plantations, a triangular slave trade between Europe, Africa and the Americas began in the 17th century.

(ii) French merchants sailed from the ports of Bordeaux or Nantes to the African coast, where they bought slaves from local chieftains. Branded and shackled, the slaves were packed tightly into ships for the three-month long voyage across the Atalantic to the Caribbean. There they were sold to plantation owners. Thus, slave trade was deeply rooted in France.

(iii) Throughout the 18th century there was little criticism of slavery in France. The National Assembly held long debates about whether the rights of man should be extended to all French subjects including those in the colonies. But it did not pass any laws, fearing opposition from businessmen whose incomes depended on the slave trade. It was finally the Convention which in 1794 legislated to free all slaves in the French overseas possessions. This, however, did not last for long. After a decade, Napoleon reintroduced slavery in 1804 which was finally abolished in French colonies in 1848.

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Answered by rupabhanu1702
3

Answer:

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Explanation:

During the five-year period that it operated, it published anti-slavery literature and frequently addressed its concerns on a substantive political level in the National Assembly of France. In February 1794, the National Assembly passed the Universal Emancipation decree, which effectively freed all colonial slaves and gave them equal rights. This decision was later reversed under Napoleon, who tried unsuccessfully to reinstitute slavery in the colonies and to regain control of Saint-Domingue, where a slave rebellion was underway.

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