Social Sciences, asked by bertuciobiancalouise, 3 months ago

Why did the westerners colonize West Asia and South Asia?

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Answered by Anonymous

2

Answer:

Before the Industrial Revolution in the mid-to-late 19th century, demand for oriental goods such as (porcelain, silk, spices and tea) remained the driving force behind European imperialism, and (with the important exception of British East India Company rule in India) the Western European stake in Asia remained.

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