Why do we have to convert an irrational denominator to its prime form first and then rationalize it? Why can't we directly solve it like that. My answer always comes different in both the cases. Shouldn't it come same? Please explain.
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Answer doesn't come same because the method is different in both cases. If you add 5+3=8 but if you -5+3= -2.. So it differs.
I think this is correct and would help you........
I think this is correct and would help you........
priyanship19:
Hmm.. yes. Thanks! :)
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