Economy, asked by stonikchampramary00, 5 months ago

why does an indifference curve slope downward​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
4

Indifference curves slope downward because, if utility is to remain the same at all points along the curve, a reduction in the quantity of the good on the vertical axis must be counterbalanced by an increase in the quantity of the good on the horizontal axis (or vice versa).

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Answered by gangothri84
1

Answer:

Indifference curves slope downward because, if utility is to remain the same at all points along the curve, a reduction in the quantity of the good on the vertical axis must be counterbalanced by an increase in the quantity of the good on the horizontal axis (or vice versa).

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