Math, asked by suryamps712, 8 months ago

Why does rational numbers fail to satisfy inverse property under multiplecation for zero

Answers

Answered by rahulppotdar

1

Step-by-step explanation:

Because rational numbers are in p/q form where p and q both r integers and q cannot be zero ....so when we find multiplicative inverse of a particular number , we have to get the reciprocal of it...for example : multiplicative inverse of 1/2 is 2/1 ....so if we do this for zero then multiplicative inverse of 0/1 will be not defined as 1/0 cannot be a rational number....

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