English, asked by riyanghori4679, 10 months ago

Why does the court determine that the notion of "separate but equal" ought not apply to this case?

Answers

Answered by aqsaahmed19945
1

The options for this question are as follows :

A) Because state funded education changes the standards of the game, requiring racial mix.  

B) Because the Plessy V. Ferguson case is as yet relevant.  

C) Because "separate however equivalent," if sound in principle, has never worked out practically, and in this way should be deserted all over the place.  

D) Because the 14th Amendment militates against "separate however equivalent" and demands mix in all cases.

Correct option will be A.

Answered by Arslankincsem
0

Separate but equal with was a lawful regulation in United States sacred law as indicated by which racial isolation did not abuse the Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution, which ensured "rise to security" under the law to all individuals.

Under the tenet, as long as the offices gave to each race were equivalent, state and neighborhood governments could necessitate that administrations, offices, open facilities, lodging, medicinal consideration, training, work, and transportation be isolated by race, which was at that point the case all through the conditions of the previous Confederacy.

The expression was gotten from a Louisiana law of 1890, in spite of the fact that the law really utilized the expression "break even with however isolated"

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