Math, asked by anonymousrrohit, 9 months ago

why is m to the power zero equal to 1

Answers

Answered by phullfalak

3

Step-by-step explanation:

BRUHH IT IS A RULE ✌️✌️✌️✌️

Answered by yash85960

2

Answer:

see m⁰ in which 0 can be written as 1-1 and in exponent rule this becomes m¹/ m¹ which gives us one

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

Chemistry, 4 months ago

1. Advantages of wind energy a. No pollution b. Available at all time c. Fuel cell d. solar cell...

Science, 4 months ago

3. We see many colourful TOWeb II C b! 4. We are allowed to play outside in the afternoons in the winter . sthur season. season. the...

English, 4 months ago

is transport a compound word...

Math, 9 months ago

In a parallelogram ABCD ,if ∠A=( 3x-20)°, ∠B= (y+15)°, ∠C= (x+40)°, then find the measures of angles of parallelogram.

English, 9 months ago

pls give some drawing for "charity begins at home"do not give from Google or you can give ideas regarding how i can draw image but on your own...

Math, 1 year ago

pls answer this and I will make u brainlist no spam...

Environmental Sciences, 1 year ago

what is the most helpful thing in life...

Physics, 1 year ago

How does proper inflation of tyres reduce fuel consumption? a: Normal reaction decreases b: Normal reaction increases c: Sliding contact with road decreases d: Sliding contact with road increases. Answer is c. How and explanation?