Why is the derivate used in the faraday equation?
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Derivatives used in Faraday equation :-
Faraday introduced law of electromagnetic induction .
EMF
where e is the electromagnetic force there is a magnetic flux too
Discovery of Faraday law is fundamental and important too .
This states that induced voltage is equal to change of magnetic flux .
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Derivatives used in Faraday equation :-
Faraday introduced law of electromagnetic induction .
EMF
where e is the electromagnetic force there is a magnetic flux too
Discovery of Faraday law is fundamental and important too .
This states that induced voltage is equal to change of magnetic flux .
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Faraday's Law
From Faraday's observations we have learned that a change in the magnetic flux produces a potential difference and with it a current in a circuit. We can include the fact that the coil may have N turns and write Faraday's Law as an equation. If we want to denote the change of a quantity in time, then we have to use the time derivative in calculus.
For historical reasons, this induced voltage is also referred to as EMF (electromotive force), $\epsilon$.
Why is there a minus (-) sign in this equation? The reason is Lenz's Law, which states:
An induced potential difference gives rise to a current, the magnetic field of which opposes the change in flux that produced it.
So the minus sign in the equation for Faraday's Law makes the equation logically correct and includes the effect of Lenz's Law, but it is a symbolic minus sign not a mathematical one.
This general formulation of Faraday's Law is much too complicated for us to use in a meaningful way. However, we can again concentrate on a special case and work from there.
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HERE'S THE ANSWER ✌
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Faraday's Law
From Faraday's observations we have learned that a change in the magnetic flux produces a potential difference and with it a current in a circuit. We can include the fact that the coil may have N turns and write Faraday's Law as an equation. If we want to denote the change of a quantity in time, then we have to use the time derivative in calculus.
For historical reasons, this induced voltage is also referred to as EMF (electromotive force), $\epsilon$.
Why is there a minus (-) sign in this equation? The reason is Lenz's Law, which states:
An induced potential difference gives rise to a current, the magnetic field of which opposes the change in flux that produced it.
So the minus sign in the equation for Faraday's Law makes the equation logically correct and includes the effect of Lenz's Law, but it is a symbolic minus sign not a mathematical one.
This general formulation of Faraday's Law is much too complicated for us to use in a meaningful way. However, we can again concentrate on a special case and work from there.
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