Economy, asked by aarohi1149, 11 months ago

Why should marginal rate of substitution diminish for a stable consumer's equilibrium?

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
4

\huge{\underline {\underline {\green{Answer}}}}

It means that the indifference curve must be convex to the origin at the equilibrium point.Thus for equilibrium to be stable at any point on an indifference curve, the marginal rate of substitution between any two goods must be diminishing and be equal to their price ratio i.e.

 <font color = "red"><marquee>❤❤❤Thanks❤❤❤</marquee> </font>

Answered by deepsen640
4

Explanation:

It means that the indifference curve must be convex to the origin at the equilibrium point. ... Thus for equilibrium to be stable at any point on an indifference curve, the marginal rate of substitution between any two goods must be diminishing and be equal to their price ratio i.e.

Similar questions