Question

* without the original text - rewrite your notes in your words by linking together the points.​

Answer 1

Answer:

I saw how Russell and Whitehead come to "prove" (may be not, depending on views) that 1+1 = 2. So how does modern logic/set theory prove that 1+1=2? (Is it just that we derive it from Peano axioms, and just say that it is true by axiom..?)

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Answer 2

Answer:

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