write the integer which is 4 less than its additive inverse
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I saw how Russell and Whitehead come to "prove" (may be not, depending on views) that 1+1 = 2. So how does modern logic/set theory prove that 1+1=2? (Is it just that we derive it from Peano axioms, and just say that it is true by axiom..?)
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Additive inverse means same number with opposite sign like 1 and - 1.
So, answer will be
Let the integer be x
Then its additive inverse will be
-(x-4)
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