you have learnt that a travelling wave in one dimension is represented by a function y = f(x,t) where x and t must appear in the combination ax +- bt or x - vt or x + vt,i.e. y = f (x +- vt). Is the converse true? Examine if the folliwing function for y can possibly represent a travelling wave (a) (x - vt)^(2) (b) log[(x + vt)//x_(0)] (c) 1//(x + vt)
Answers
Answered by
0
No, the converse is not true.
Explanation:
- For a wave to function, the basic requirement is to show a traveling wave
- For all the values of x and t, there must be the finite value of the wave function.
- No one satisfied the condition apart from y out of all.
- That's why no one can represent a traveling wave.
Similar questions