Math, asked by appkappo11, 10 months ago

(1- sin²A) ( sec²A) = 1

Answers

Answered by hemantprachi68283
4

Answer:

So sorry I can't help in this question.

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Answered by vaishanavi2003
8

Step-by-step explanation:

(1-sin^2A) (sec^2A)=1

(cos^2A) ( 1/cos^2A)...........by the property (1-sin^2=cos^2),( 1/cos^2=sec^2)

by solving cos ^2A get cancelled and you got =1

LHS=RHS

hope this is useful for you

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