Question

4. In the property of indices a^m÷ a^n = a^m-n, taking m = n, show that
q^0 = 1​

Answer 1

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

aⁿ÷ aˣ = aⁿ⁻ˣ

When n = x

aⁿ÷ aˣ = aⁿ÷ aⁿ                     (or, aⁿ÷ aⁿ = 1)

          = (a/a)ⁿ

          = 1 ⁿ

          = 1

Answer 2

Answer:

We know that a^m / a^n = a^m-n

When m=n

We get

a^n / a^n = a^n-n

=a^0

=1

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