can u solve this??????puzzle
a marble going at a speed of 2ms inverse 1 hits another marble of equal mass at rest.if the collision is perfectly elastic,then the velocity of the first marble after collision is
1.4ms-1(read as inverse 1)
2.0ms-1(read as inverse 1)
3.2ms-1(read as inverse 1)
4.3ms-1(inverse 1)
.,,,,,,,plzz do it with full steps.......need it quickly.....plzz help!!!!if posssible
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option 2..
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we apply conservation of linear momentum and also the conservation of kinetic energy, as the collision is elastic. There is no loss of energy.
m * u + m * 0 = m * v1 + m * v2
=> u = v1 + v2 -- (1)
1/2 m * u² + 0 = 1/2 m * v1² + 1/2 m * v2²
=> u² = v1² + v2²
=> u² = (u - v2)² + v2²
=> -2 u v2 + 2 v2² = 0
=> v2 = 0 or v2 = u
Then, v1 = u or v1 = 0
Here it is not possible that v1 = u and v2 = 0, as the marble 1, cannot collide and run over the marble 2 and still have marble 2 at rest.
Thus v1 = 0 and v2 = u. So answer is (2).
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we apply conservation of linear momentum and also the conservation of kinetic energy, as the collision is elastic. There is no loss of energy.
m * u + m * 0 = m * v1 + m * v2
=> u = v1 + v2 -- (1)
1/2 m * u² + 0 = 1/2 m * v1² + 1/2 m * v2²
=> u² = v1² + v2²
=> u² = (u - v2)² + v2²
=> -2 u v2 + 2 v2² = 0
=> v2 = 0 or v2 = u
Then, v1 = u or v1 = 0
Here it is not possible that v1 = u and v2 = 0, as the marble 1, cannot collide and run over the marble 2 and still have marble 2 at rest.
Thus v1 = 0 and v2 = u. So answer is (2).
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