Question

Do divergence and curl of Lorentz force have some physical meaning?

Answer 1

Hey mate ^_^

All these expressions make perfect sense inside some integrals, and using the Stokes theorem. Then you can relate the work -- being ∫F⋅dr=∬∇×F⋅dS∫F⋅dr=∬∇×F⋅dS in terms of the voltage drop ∫E⋅dr=∫∇φ⋅dr=φ2−φ1∫E⋅dr=∫∇φ⋅dr=φ2−φ1 for instance.....

For the magnetic field, it may be more transparent to use the gauge potential. In integrals there is no difference of course.....


#Be Brainly❤️

Answer 2

Hello mate here is your answer.

The physical meaning of ∇×F∇×F and ∇⋅F∇⋅Fdirectly, as far as I can see, are the usual ones : the longitudinal and transverse component of the force field. But be warn that the transverse and longitudinal components of the force is not related directly to the transverse and longitudinal component of the gauge fields, because of the cross product v×Bv×B in the Lorentz force. Using the Maxwell equations (as you tried) it must be possible to express the longitudinal and transverse component of the force using only one component of the field.

Hope it helps you.