For each ineteger a, 3 does not divide a in and only if 3 divides a^2+1
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Show that if a is an integer, then 3 divides a3−a
we can write, where k is an integer;
a3−a=3k
a(a2−1)=3k
Now if a=k then
a2−1=3 and a=±2 so a3−a=24=3×8
If a is not equal to k;
then
a(a2−1)=a(a+1)(a−1)=3k
since a(a+1)(a−1) is the product of 3 consecutive integers, the expression is divisible by 3.
Is this ok?, just a check. I'm not really all that good at number theory.
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