Physics, asked by pawanjhahaz1, 1 year ago

hey friends answer this

Attachments:

Answers

Answered by TheKnowledge
3
hey mate !!


this is your CORRECT ANSWER



hope it helps!!!



thanks
Attachments:

pawanjhahaz1: brainliest Ke Piche mat bhago
Answered by nandini2106
5
heya friend

Ur answer is 1 ohm
let me tell u how
firstly in the ∆ shape which has one end as A
1+1=2 ohm in series
and then we have two resistance in parallel with resistance 2 ohm .....so total resistance is 1 ohm in this area


now coming to the next ∆ adjoining this one
we get two in series ( one calculated before) so we have 1+1=2 ohm in series and then we have another resistance connected to it in parallel with resistance 2 ohm
so calculating in parallel we get equivalent resistance is 1 ohm


now coming to the last and biggest ∆ we have two resistance in series ( one calculated)....... so calculating in series we get 1+1=2 ohm
now calculating in parallel we have another resistance of 2 ohm

so calculating we get the total resistance between A and B to be 1 ohm
hope it helps
Similar questions