Question

If an answer to this question has exactly 3.5 stars in 40 minutes I'll give more points. Also if somebody reported this then they're gay af

Answer 1

Explanation:

I THINK THE ANSWER SHOULD BE NO.

LEARN MORE-

TO PROVE 1=2

let a = b

a^2 = ab multiplying both side by a

a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2 subtracting both side by b^2

(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b) (a-b) removed from both sidrs

a+b = b but a = b

2b = b

2 = 1

Answer 2

Answer:

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