If polynomial 2x 4 + 3x 3 + 2kx 2 +3x+6 is exactly divisible by (x+2) then value of k is: Could you plz tell it in detail fast.
Answers
Answered by
102
p (x)=x+2
p (x)=0
0=x+2
-2=x
we put -2 in the place of x
p (x)= 2x 4+ 3x 3+2kx2+3x+6
p (x)=0
0= (2×-2×4)+(3×-2×3)+(2×k×-2×2)+(3×-2)+6
0=-16+(-18)+(-8k)+(-6)+6
0=-16-18-8k-6+6
0=-34-8k
0+34=8k
34=8k
34/8=k
17/4=k
p (x)=0
0=x+2
-2=x
we put -2 in the place of x
p (x)= 2x 4+ 3x 3+2kx2+3x+6
p (x)=0
0= (2×-2×4)+(3×-2×3)+(2×k×-2×2)+(3×-2)+6
0=-16+(-18)+(-8k)+(-6)+6
0=-16-18-8k-6+6
0=-34-8k
0+34=8k
34=8k
34/8=k
17/4=k
Answered by
81
Answer:
k = 1
Step-by-step explanation:
Polynomial :
Since (x+2) divides the polynomial completely
So,
We put -2 in the place of x
k = 1
Hence the value of k is 1
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