Math, asked by RupeshRky, 1 year ago

plz friends tell me how this is the answers of the questions prove it plz... for me..i hv ticked the right option

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Answered by surendarrajawat
0
Hey MATE!

1) 1/x is directly proportional to 1/y (given)

Therefore, obviously the 1st option is correct as it is already said in the question and they can't be indirectly proportional.

2) x and y vary inversely.

Therefore x is inversely proportional to 1/y.

To remove proportionality sign we introduce a constant K.

Now
x =  \frac{k}{y}  \\  \\ xy \:  =  \: k

Hope it helps

Hakuna Matata :))
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