Math, asked by vedantkar2005, 10 months ago

prove (a^p+q)^2(a^q+r)^2(a^r+p)^2/(a^pXa^qXa^r=1

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Answered by shashicha1980
0

Answer:

are you studying for RIMC, I too if you know me my name is yugank Singh change who passed the written exam for two times in jun2019 and in dec2020 From uttar Pradesh

Answered by prashantrawani4363
3

Answer:

Mark my answer as brainliest

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