Math, asked by kavithaganesh313, 1 year ago

Prove that the sun of the Lagrangian function is unity.

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Answered by Anonymous
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Prove that the sum of the Lagrange (interpolation) coefficients is equal to 1.

Please suggest me a book-reference or give a solution for me. Thanks a lot in advance.

If f=∑ni=0f(xi)Li(x)f=∑i=0nf(xi)Li(x) then one has to prove∑ni=0Li(x)=1∑i=0nLi(x)=1 whereLi(x)=(x−x0)...(x−xi−1)(x−xi+1)...(x−xn)(xi−x0)...(xi−xi−1)(xi−xi+1)...(xi−xn)Li(x)=(x−x0)...(x−xi−1)(x−xi+1)...(x−xn)(xi−x0)...(xi−xi−1)(xi−xi+1)...(xi−xn),i=0⋯ni=0⋯n

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askedJun 14 '15 at 18:39



user1942348
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editedJun 14 '15 at 19:02


   

How do you define the Lagrange interpolation coefficients? – copper.hat Jun 14 '15 at 18:

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