Physics, asked by pubgloverguys, 10 months ago

reason+ Correct answer
best answer will be marked as brainliest answer

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Answered by Anonymous
2

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CORRECT ANSWER IS OPTION (B ) ☑️

❇️REASON:
Smaller pendulum will be that for which time period is less here 1.5 seconds so when this completes one vibration the biggest Pandalam will complete its  \frac{3}{4} oscillations (because its time period is 2 seconds )that is it will be at its negative extreme position ;hence the smaller pendulum will be ahead by a phase of  \frac{\pi}{2} then bigger pendulum at this time

hence option (b) is the correct option ☑️
# be brainly
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