Math, asked by brahmi52, 1 year ago

Sin inverse 1 by 3 equal to

Answers

Answered by Anonymous

0

3

is the correct answer

^_^

Anonymous: how! plz explain with method

brahmi52: u have to give the valve in pi

Anonymous: means

Anonymous: pi by 3

brahmi52: cos inverse 1 by 2 equal to pi by 3

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

English, 6 months ago

my neighbour said to me"when is the next train to kottayam. change this question into reported speech...

Science, 6 months ago

(a) If a person is suffering from jaundice, name the mode of its transmission and the organ affected by this disease. (b) List one general mode of prevention of jaundice. (c) It has been observed that despite the availability of the vaccine for Hepatitis A in the market, it may not be necessary to be given to children by the time they are 5 years old. Why? plz answer fast!!!

Biology, 6 months ago

Which sugars/starches have the most energy? Proteins? Fats? ( that's a question from my worksheet, it's about the body and digestive system )...

Chemistry, 1 year ago

Why temperature of ice does not increases when it starts melting...

Math, 1 year ago

The number (7+5√2)1/3+(7-5√2)1/3 is equal to ...

History, 1 year ago

Definition-Historiography...

History, 1 year ago

What was the Russian Parliament known as? Who was the Tsar of Russia in 1917?

History, 1 year ago

How can harappa civilization like town planing...