Question

State with reason whether the following sets are finite or infinite. (R.P)
i) (x:x€N and (x - 1)(x - 2) = 0)
ii) {x:x€N and x is a prime)
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Answer 1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

First one is finite because it contains set of two numbers {1,2}

Second one is infinite because prime numbers are infinite

Answer 2

Step-by-step explanation:

ANSWER FROM CARTOON LOVER ❤️