The function f(x)=x+1 from the set of integers to itself is onto. Is it True of False?
Answers
Answered by
2
Answer: True
Step-by-step explanation: let us consider, f(x)= y,
now, y= x+1 ⇒x=y-1 ∈ set of an integers , since x∈ set of integers
therefore, the inverse of the function belongs to on the set of integers .
so,the function f(x) from the set of integers to itself is onto.
Similar questions