The function f(x)=x+1 from the set of integers to itself is onto. Is it True of False?
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Answer: True
Step-by-step explanation: let us consider, f(x)= y,
now, y= x+1 ⇒x=y-1 ∈ set of an integers , since x∈ set of integers
therefore, the inverse of the function belongs to on the set of integers .
so,the function f(x) from the set of integers to itself is onto.
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