Science, asked by tharu5088, 1 year ago

The wave-function of a particle must be "normalizable", because

Answers

Answered by RAAJSRIWASTAV3
1
The wave-function of a particle must be "normalizable", because the particle must be somewhere.
Answered by Shaizakincsem
1

The options for this question are missing. Following are the options:

a. The particle ' s angular momentum must be conserved.

b. The particle cannot be in two places at the same time.

c. The particle ' s momentum must be conserved.

d. The particle ' s charge must be conserved.

e. The particle must be somewhere.

Option E is the correct answer.

(e) The square of the wave function is a likelihood dissemination portraying the plausible areas of the molecule.

Since it is a probability distribution, its necessary over all space (i.e. the likelihood that the molecule is SOMEWHERE) must be

1. Since it must coordinate to 1, it must be normalizable.


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