Math, asked by selene878, 11 months ago

What is the expression for f-1(x)

Answers

Answered by mohishkhan9996
1

Answer:

hey... mate ur ans... is here

In order for a function f: X → Y to have an inverse, it must have the property that for every y in Y there must be one, and only one x in X so that f(x) = y.

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